Question. My friend is 26 years old. Immediately after marriage, she conceived and underwent an abortion without the husband’s consent. Now, after four years, she wishes to conceive, but hasn’t been able to. Could abortion be the reason? Will the gynaecologist discover that she underwent an abortion? Please reply.
Answer. If there’s an infection, it may prevent her from getting pregnant. Advise her to consult a gynaecologist, share every detail with the doctor and request him to keep them confidential. Only then is it possible to help her. The husband’s sperm count should be examined.
Comments (4)
on: November 17, 2009 8:50 PM | Reply
Hey der...I really like the sex advice given here...Its very sensible and I think its helpful...I also want to ask some questions, can somebody tell me how to post it???
Thanks.
on: November 17, 2009 10:27 PM | Reply
Maybe have a kid with someone else
(I am ready to oblige ) you could hide this detail too since u are so good at it LOL
on: November 18, 2009 6:34 PM | Reply
Someone I knew had that. It was some form of tuberculosis relating to the genital area. I don't know the exact name. Its a bit hard to detect. But its completely curable. I would recommend to have a through test in that direction to rule out that possibility.
on: November 18, 2009 8:21 PM | Reply
Sometimes married women does not want to become pregnant early. They undergo abortion as another source of adventure & excitement due to lack of proper knowledge. Menstrual Extraction or 1st-trimester abortion is safe for 99% cases. In my suggestion as she got pregnant very easily earlier, she is OK, as MR is safe. Please check her husband's sperm count. Another thing did she used contraceptive pills. Then it can be a cause also.